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Oct 10, 2019 at 14:51 comment added Paul Siegel (And indeed, it doesn't look to me like the Fourier transform of your operator is a polynomial, but nevertheless it looks like you ought to be able to construct a reasonable functional calculus for the operator. I still can't tell if it's Fredholm in the traditional sense, though.)
Oct 10, 2019 at 14:49 comment added Paul Siegel The approach I'm referring to is explained in detail in chapter 10 of Higson and Roe's Analytic K-homology, culminating in theorem 10.6.5. This shows how to construct a K-homology class from an elliptic operator, and the key point is pseudolocality (for operators constructed via the functional calculus). I don't think this theory applies directly to your operator, but if you can imitate the analysis to produce a class in some sort of K-homology group then you should get an index theorem as a byproduct.
Oct 10, 2019 at 13:47 comment added IgnoranteX I didn't know about the need to be pseudolocal to work out a classical index theory. Do you have any reference (book&chapter or article) about the topic? And also, would you agree with me that these operators (at least the one in the example) don't have any principal symbol?
Oct 10, 2019 at 12:43 comment added Paul Siegel If they aren't Fredholm, then one typical way to proceed is to study the algebra generated by the commutators of your preferred class of operators with multiplication operators by continuous functions - your operators will have a Fredholm-like index in the K-theory of this algebra, and often the right way to generalize the Atiyah-Singer index theorem is to calculate this K-theory group.
Oct 10, 2019 at 12:38 comment added Paul Siegel To make classical index theory work it isn't strictly necessary that the operators are local, just pseudolocal - meaning they should commute with multiplication by a continuous function modulo compact operators. It doesn't look like this quite holds for the operators that you introduced, which makes me wonder if these operator are even Fredholm - do you know one way or the other?
Oct 10, 2019 at 12:09 history edited IgnoranteX CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2019 at 12:04 comment added IgnoranteX You are right. By "Hörmander symbol" I mean that the symbol is "in the class $S_{1,0}^m$ of Hörmander", using the wording of Wikipedia. I hope there is no big ambiguity in this definition.
Oct 9, 2019 at 21:22 comment added LSpice The Wikipedia page refers to Hörmander, and uses the word 'symbol' in the discussion of linear differential operators with constant coefficients, but seems never explicitly to mention "Hörmander symbol".
Oct 9, 2019 at 21:21 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor proofreading
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Oct 9, 2019 at 21:05 history asked IgnoranteX CC BY-SA 4.0