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Oct 7, 2019 at 20:02 vote accept user34104
Oct 7, 2019 at 12:29 answer added Mark Grant timeline score: 3
Oct 5, 2019 at 18:18 comment added Mark Grant I still don't see how that integral is defined when $M$ is non-orientable. If $M$ is orientable then you can evaluate on the fundamental class and get an integer mod 4, in which case I agree that the exponential of the integral is well-defined.
Oct 5, 2019 at 14:57 comment added user34104 @MarkGrant This is precisely the problem posted in the question, i.e., when plug in $u=w_1^2$, the well-defined $\exp(i \pi/2 \int_M \mathcal{P}(u))$ becomes not well defined. So it seems to suggest that identifying $u$ with $w_1^2$ is somewhat problematic. But I do not know why.
Oct 5, 2019 at 14:50 comment added user34104 @MarkGrant Yes, as M.G. explained, $M_4=M$.
Oct 4, 2019 at 20:15 comment added Mark Grant I'm not sure I understand what the integration means. In particular, if M is non-orientable then there is neither a volume form or an integral fundamental class to evaluate a mod 4 cohomology class against.
Oct 4, 2019 at 16:05 comment added M.G. @MarkGrant: I suspect $M_4 :=M$ to emphasize that $M$ is a 4-manifold.
Oct 4, 2019 at 8:50 comment added Mark Grant What does the notation $M_4$ mean? Also, do you have a reference for "It is known that..."?
Oct 3, 2019 at 19:13 history asked user34104 CC BY-SA 4.0