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Sep 30, 2019 at 0:04 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 29, 2019 at 16:13 answer added Angelo timeline score: 6
Sep 29, 2019 at 15:25 history edited user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 29, 2019 at 15:22 comment added user39380 @Angelo Maybe I am missing something elementary... would you explain a little bit more? Thanks!
Sep 29, 2019 at 15:16 comment added Angelo Why should that be true? In fact, a quasiprojective variety $X$ with the property that $\mathrm{H}^i(X, F)$ is finite-dimensional for all locally free sheaves $F$ is projective.
Sep 29, 2019 at 14:26 history edited user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 29, 2019 at 14:13 history edited user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 494 characters in body; edited title
Sep 29, 2019 at 14:02 comment added user39380 @ulrich Oh, thanks! Taking normalization looks good enough to show $H^0(M_g,\mathcal{O}_{M_g})=\mathbb{C}$...maybe I should modify the question
Sep 29, 2019 at 12:18 comment added naf Why is replacing $\widetilde{M}_g$ with its normalisation not good enough?
Sep 29, 2019 at 1:41 history edited user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 27, 2019 at 2:00 history asked user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0