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Sep 27, 2019 at 21:55 vote accept Joakim Færgeman
Sep 25, 2019 at 18:46 comment added Joakim Færgeman I agree that if the functor is a Zariski Sheaf, the answer would be yes. I wonder if it is even true in general.
Sep 25, 2019 at 15:51 comment added Fred Rohrer I think (without checking all the details) that it follows from the result in EGA I mentioned above that the answer to your question is yes if your functor is a Zariski sheaf on the category of all schemes. I have no idea about the general case.
Sep 25, 2019 at 14:44 comment added Joakim Færgeman I mean, when it is seen as a contravariant functor on the affine schemes, there exists an affine scheme X such that X represents the restricted functor
Sep 25, 2019 at 13:25 comment added Fred Rohrer @Joakim: What precisely do you mean by "it is representable when restricted to affine schemes"?
Sep 25, 2019 at 11:24 comment added Joakim Færgeman Maybe I was unclear in my question, or maybe you have already answered it, and I dont understand. In any case, I am dealing with the following situation: I have a contravariant functor from Schemes to Sets. I know that it is representable when restricted to affine schemes. Can I conclude that it is also representable on Schemes?
Sep 25, 2019 at 6:14 comment added Denis Nardin @JoakimFærgeman Maybe this helps: the restriction functor induces an equivalences of categories between Zariski sheaves on $\mathrm{Sch}$ and Zariski sheaves on $\mathrm{AffSch}$, so to give one is the same thing as to give the other.
Sep 24, 2019 at 23:40 comment added Arun Debray We don't know that a priori. But if $F$ is represented by some scheme $X$, then $F$ is determined by its restriction to affines. Let $Y$ be another scheme and $\mathfrak U$ be an affine open cover of $Y$; then the set $F(Y) = \mathrm{Hom}(Y, X)$ is the subset of $\prod_{U\in\mathfrak U}\mathrm{Hom}(U, X)$ consisting of tuples of maps which agree on all pairwise intersections.
Sep 24, 2019 at 23:08 comment added Joakim Færgeman Thanks for the answer. I am still a bit confounded. How is it that it suffices to define our functor $F:Sch^{op}\rightarrow Set$ on affine schemes? How do we know it has an extension to all schemes, then?
Sep 24, 2019 at 22:54 history answered Arun Debray CC BY-SA 4.0