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Sep 22, 2019 at 15:47 comment added Taras Banakh @JamesHanson Yes, see degruyter.com/view/j/forum.2015.27.issue-4/forum-2013-0033/… Also the same result was independently proved by Hoffman: ivv5hpp.uni-muenster.de/u/lkram_01/publ/39.pdf
Sep 22, 2019 at 15:16 comment added James E Hanson @TarasBanakh Do you have a source for that?
Sep 22, 2019 at 15:01 comment added Taras Banakh @JamesHanson You are right: not every topologically homogeneous space (form example the Hilbert cube) can be endowed with a homogenous metric. It is known that locally contractible locally compact homogeneous metric spaces are finite-dimensional manifolds.
Sep 22, 2019 at 14:28 comment added James E Hanson @TarasBanakh I know that locally compact connected Abelian groups are always $\mathbb{R}^n \times K$ for some compact group $K$. This is discussed in this blog post. I don't know what happens in the non-Abelian case.
Sep 22, 2019 at 14:26 comment added James E Hanson @D.S.Lipham I don't think a topologically homogeneous metric space can always be given a homogeneous metric, can it? For instance the Hilbert cube is topologically homogeneous but I doubt it has a homogeneous metric.
Sep 22, 2019 at 13:47 comment added Taras Banakh And what about locally compact topological groups? Is it true that any locally compact topological group decomposes into the product of a Lie group and a compact group?
Sep 22, 2019 at 12:05 comment added Taras Banakh By the way, what happens at the level of locally compact abelian groups? In this case the Pontryagin duality theory can give some counterexamples.
Sep 22, 2019 at 12:04 comment added Taras Banakh This is continuation of my comment. Now it remains to prove (or disprove) that the fibration $G/H\to G/KH$ is trivial.
Sep 22, 2019 at 12:02 comment added Taras Banakh It seems that you locally compact homogeneous space $(X,d)$ is uniformly homeomorphic to the homogeneous space $G/H$ of some locally compact group $G$ by a closed subgroup $H$. Being locally compact (and maybe something else like $\sigma$-compact), the group $G$ contains a compact normal subgroup $K$ such that $G/K$ is a Lie group, so a manifold. Then $HK$ is a closed subgroup in $G$ and $G/HK$ seems to be a manifold. Therefore, $(X,d)$ admits a perfect map onto a manifold $M$, whose fiber is homeomorphic to the compact homogeneous space $HK/H$.
Sep 22, 2019 at 6:29 comment added D.S. Lipham What about (pseudo-arc)$\times$(pseudo-arc minus a point)? Or (pseudo-arc)$^2$ minus a point? Probably not the product of a continuum and a manifold. But are they homogeneous? My intuition is that the second example is, because (circle)$^2$ minus a point is homeomorphic to $\mathbb R^2$. Maybe an easier example to consider is (solenoid)$^2$ minus a point.
Sep 22, 2019 at 3:43 history asked James E Hanson CC BY-SA 4.0