Timeline for Why does the Gamma-function complete the Riemann Zeta function?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
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| Apr 17, 2017 at 19:23 | history | edited | Michael Hardy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 32 characters in body
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| May 10, 2012 at 23:03 | comment | added | Tom Copeland | I posted an MSE question asking about Riemann's thinking on symmetrizing the functional equation, math.stackexchange.com/questions/143449/…. | |
| Mar 10, 2011 at 5:45 | comment | added | KConrad | Peter: that was not the first hint. That the zeta-function even makes sense for negative numbers (in a rigorous sense) was first worked out by Riemann through his proof of analytic continuation. Before that there was not a known relation between zeta(s) and zeta(1-s) to motivate using the Gamma-function. Although Euler, long before Riemann, had derived a non-rigorous formula that is equivalent to the functional equation of the zeta-function just at integers, I don't think it was something that influenced Riemann's work which brought in the Gamma-function explicitly. | |
| Aug 2, 2010 at 10:34 | comment | added | Peter Arndt | Nice, thank you! I can imagine that this was maybe the first hint, then leading to the connection pointed out by Harald Hanche-Olsen... | |
| Aug 2, 2010 at 3:07 | history | answered | Dr_Acula | CC BY-SA 2.5 |