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Oct 27, 2019 at 19:53 comment added 0xbadf00d I was able to reduce my problem to a smooth optimization problem. It would be great if you could took a look mathoverflow.net/q/344621/91890.
Sep 24, 2019 at 15:28 comment added 0xbadf00d Give me one last shot: $x\mapsto x^+:=\max(0,x)$ can be smoothly approximated by $x\mapsto p_\alpha(x):=x+\frac1\alpha\ln\left(1+e^{-\alpha x}\right)$, $\alpha>0$. We could use this to approximate $x\mapsto|x|=x^++(-x)^+$ and hence to approximate $(a,b)\mapsto\min(a,b)=\frac12(a+b-|a-b|)$. We could solve the optimization problem with an accordingly modified objective function. If $w^{(\alpha)}$ is the resulting maximizer, how would it be related to the maximizer $w$ of the actual objective function? (If you know it, this might be an answer to one of the other questions.)
Sep 24, 2019 at 6:24 comment added 0xbadf00d interchange of minimization and integration given in Theorem 14.60 of the book Variational Analysis by Rockafellar and ‎Wets (see also Theorem 2.1 in this paper) might be useful. Do you think it is applicable here?
Sep 22, 2019 at 18:55 comment added 0xbadf00d Just worked out the left details (mathoverflow.net/q/342173/91890) and noticed that $w$ disappears when we differentiate the integral function. So, it seems like this approach is of no help to determine the maximizing $w$. Maybe you can take a look if I missed something crucial.
Sep 21, 2019 at 14:53 comment added 0xbadf00d I've tried to figure out as much as possible in the special case $I=\{1,2\}$ and asked a separate question for how we can proceed: mathoverflow.net/q/342173/91890. Would be great if you could take a look.
Sep 19, 2019 at 18:23 comment added 0xbadf00d Thanks for your comment. I don't necessarily need an answer with all the details, but an outline or sketch how one could proceed. (I could imagine that a consideration in the spirit of Example 10.49 of Clarke's book might work.)
Sep 19, 2019 at 16:55 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I agree with your latter comment. Concerning the previous one, I think that may go beyond the usual framework for MO answers and possibly require a full-blown paper. Even for the much simpler question posted on this page, the answer with complete details is quite long.
Sep 19, 2019 at 14:34 comment added 0xbadf00d (BTW, we can conclude that in the case $x(s)=bx(t)$, $$\partial_Cf(x)=\{A\delta_s+(1-A)b\delta_t:A\in[0,1]\},$$ no matter whether $s=t$ or not, right? And it's worth to mention that your argument should still hold if we replace $L^2(\tau)$ by $L^p(\tau)$, $p\in[1,\infty]$.)
Sep 19, 2019 at 13:02 comment added 0xbadf00d In light of the equation $(\ast)$ in the screenshot I've provided in the question math.stackexchange.com/q/3360750/47771, shouldn't we be able to use the result of this question?
Sep 19, 2019 at 12:11 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I have briefly looked at those questions, but at the moment I don't have good ideas about them yet.
Sep 19, 2019 at 4:16 comment added 0xbadf00d Thanks, once again. Did you had a chance to take a look at the other two questions?
Sep 18, 2019 at 21:04 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I have provided the details you requested, and also a correction: the previous formulas were good only for the more difficult case $x(s)=bx(t)$; the considerations are quite a bit simpler if $x(s)<bx(t)$ or $x(s)>bx(t)$.
Sep 18, 2019 at 20:57 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 20:52 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 18:21 comment added 0xbadf00d One last query for this question: (a) How exactly did you obtain the result for the directional derivative? (b) It's clear to me that if $\{t\}\in\mathcal T$ and $\tau(\{t\})>0$, then $$|x(t)|=\frac1{\tau(\{t\})}\int_{\{t\}}|x|\:{\rm d}\tau$$ for all $x\in L^1(\tau)$. Thus, assuming that $\tau$ is finite, $L^p(\tau)\ni x\mapsto x(\{t\})$ is a bounded linear functional by Hölder's inequality for all $p\ge1$. In particular, it is (globally) Lipschitz continuous. But what do we do, when $\tau$ is not finite? I guess we need at least something like local compactness or am I wrong?
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:51 comment added 0xbadf00d Thanks, once again. BTW: My motivation for the question was this question: mathoverflow.net/q/339511/91890. Can we utilize the result here to answer the other question? See this question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3360750/47771 for a situation which is closer to the situation here as well.
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:50 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I'll try to look at that other question as well.
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:50 vote accept 0xbadf00d
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:49 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I have added the case $s=t$ as well.
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:49 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 16:40 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 16:26 comment added 0xbadf00d That's great, thank you. What can we do in the diagonal case $s=t$?
Sep 18, 2019 at 16:04 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 16:00 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : I have added the calculation of the generalized gradient in the case when $\tau$ does not have atoms at $s$ or $t$.
Sep 18, 2019 at 15:58 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2019 at 15:36 comment added 0xbadf00d I see, thanks. It's my fault that I didn't check whether $f$ at least satisfies the necessary conditions. However, I'm still interested in the question under the additional assumption you provided.
Sep 18, 2019 at 15:33 comment added Iosif Pinelis @0xbadf00d : Yes, the necessary and sufficient condition for the evaluation map at $s$ to be Lipshcitz is that $\tau(\{s\})>0$.
Sep 18, 2019 at 15:29 comment added 0xbadf00d Thank you for your answer. Are there useful sufficient conditions on $\tau$ ensuring that the evaluation maps are locally Lipschitz (or even continuously differentiable)?
Sep 18, 2019 at 15:15 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0