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Sep 15, 2019 at 12:46 comment added Todd Trimble Yes, if you instead take the objects to be group elements, and the underlying category to be discrete. David's comment is closely related to the Eckmann-Hilton argument: ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Eckmann-Hilton+argument
Sep 15, 2019 at 11:17 comment added user145873 Can a non-abelian group be a monoidal category?
Sep 15, 2019 at 10:57 comment added David Roberts Why do you expect there to be such a bifunctor? If there is a bifunctor as you write, the group is forced to be abelian.
Sep 15, 2019 at 10:20 review First posts
Sep 15, 2019 at 10:32
Sep 15, 2019 at 10:17 history asked user145873 CC BY-SA 4.0