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Timeline for Trying to understand Fisher's proof

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Feb 11 at 1:26 vote accept Iosif Pinelis
Sep 13, 2019 at 0:21 comment added Iosif Pinelis @esg : Thank you for solving the remaining piece of the puzzle. (Your displayed equalities hold only for $k=1,\dots,n-1$, but that is not a problem.)
Sep 12, 2019 at 19:02 comment added esg $f$ is just an auxiliary polynomial used to determine the coefficients $\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_n$. For $k=0,\ldots,n-1$ $$\big((t\frac{d}{dt})^k f\big) (1)= (-1)^k\frac{(n-1)!}{(n-1-k)!}\big((\frac{d}{dg})^k P\big)(0)=0$$.
Sep 12, 2019 at 17:12 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 12, 2019 at 17:05 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0