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Apr 17, 2020 at 17:45 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 11, 2019 at 10:41 comment added Anixx @Alexander supertramp no, I do not see how this can be the case.
Sep 11, 2019 at 8:41 comment added user145059 @ Anixx so for confirmation again , Can I "safely":say the regularized product of all "odd" primes is 2π² ??
Sep 11, 2019 at 5:40 comment added Anixx @Alexander supertramp if you remove even or odd terms of the series on the left side, it is not the same as dividing it by 2. If you just divide the series by 2 then the regularized sum will be divided by 2 as well, but this will be true only for linear operations. Removing even or odd terms will have unpredictable effect on the regularized sum.
Sep 11, 2019 at 0:20 comment added user145059 I couldn't understand particularly this part of the answer : " As such, the answer to your third ................ left part is not equal to dividing it by 2." "Will remain same "means value not changes or got divided by 2? And I I don't get it in last statement wht you are trying to say??
Sep 11, 2019 at 0:17 comment added user145059 I don't understand answer to the third question . "Can I say the regularized product of all "odd" primes is $2π²$? " I.e by dividing both sides by 2??
Sep 11, 2019 at 0:13 comment added user145059 thank you for the answer . I'm somewhat thought in the same direction when I saw the Abel plana formula for convergent sum and Abel plana (Ramanujan) for divergent sum. In classical Abel plana there is $\int_0^\infty F(x)dx$ part which diverges for divergent series . In latter case of Ramanujan that part is dropped ( to get a convergent answer I think ! )
Sep 10, 2019 at 20:19 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 10, 2019 at 20:13 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 10, 2019 at 20:07 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 10, 2019 at 20:02 history answered Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0