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Sep 4, 2019 at 20:38 history edited MCS CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 4, 2019 at 20:32 comment added MCS @Yemon Choi: There exist a large family of functions for which the limit does exist. Those are the functions that I'm concerned with. For example, as a consequence of the Hardy-Littlewood Tauberian Theorem, all linear combinations of set-series of sets with well-defined natural density have finite semi-norm, as do all rational functions.
Sep 4, 2019 at 20:29 comment added MCS @reuns: I know about semi-norms; I just goofed and failed to notice that this was only a semi-norm, not a norm. The counterexample didn't occur to me until just as I was going to sleep. xD
Sep 4, 2019 at 20:28 history edited MCS CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 4, 2019 at 0:21 comment added Yemon Choi I also don't understand why you get a well-defined seminorm, i.e. why should the limit in your definition be finite?
Sep 3, 2019 at 23:49 comment added reuns To me this is not research level, why don't you ask on MSE. Your $\|.\|$ is only a semi-norm for entire function $\|f\|=0$ so the natural map $\to H$ isn't injective. For your question (1) sure the $L^2$ norm of $e^{1/(z+1)}$ on $|z|=r$ isn't $O( (1-r)^{-1})$.
Sep 3, 2019 at 23:40 history asked MCS CC BY-SA 4.0