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Sep 7, 2019 at 22:46 comment added Will Sawin @MattF. The coefficients of $x,y,z$ in the linear form you get by fixing the other variables are all zero mod $2$ in that case. My method only finds solutions where at least one of those coefficients is nonzero.
Sep 7, 2019 at 21:49 comment added user44143 I don't understand how that works, e.g. for $f(x,y,z)=xy+yz+xz+2x+1$. Then $(1,1,1)$ is a root mod $2$ which does not lift to any roots mod $4$. (That is not a counterexample to the claim, since $(0,1,3)$ is a root mod $4$, but it makes me realize that I don't understand how the proof works.)
Sep 6, 2019 at 12:30 comment added Will Sawin @MattF. Yes if the coefficients do not all together have a common factor.
Sep 6, 2019 at 12:29 comment added user44143 Does this give an argument that if there is a solution mod $p$, then there is also a solution mod $p^k$?
Aug 23, 2019 at 16:11 comment added user44143 Thanks! I am glad to see the lemma and the impression of plausibility.
Aug 23, 2019 at 15:16 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 4.0