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Sep 22, 2019 at 6:43 history edited Praphulla Koushik CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 16, 2019 at 3:10 comment added Praphulla Koushik @DavidRoberts no problem. Please respond only when you are free
Sep 16, 2019 at 1:41 comment added David Roberts @PraphullaKoushik I can answer that question, but not right now.
Sep 15, 2019 at 16:23 comment added Praphulla Koushik For another element $y\in X$ there exists unique $h\in G$ such that $\phi(y)=y.h$. There exists unique $r\in G$ such that $y=x.r$. Then, $\phi(y)=\phi(x).r=x.g.r=yr^{-1}gr$. This conclude $r^{-1}gr=h$; that is $gr=rh$. Similarly, $\phi(x)=\phi(y)r^{-1}=yhr^{-1}=xrhr^{-1}$. So, we have $g=rhr^{-1}$; that is $gr=rh$. In case $G$ is abelian, I can then say $gr=hr$ which would then imply $g=h$. Thus, for each $\phi:X\rightarrow X$, there is unique $g\in G$ representing $\phi$...
Sep 15, 2019 at 16:22 comment added Praphulla Koushik Let $G$ be a Lie group, $X$ be a manifold. Suppose further that $G$ acts freely and transitively on $X$. Let $\phi:X\rightarrow X$ be a $G$-equivariant diffeomorphism. Fix an element $x\in X$. Choose an element $y\in X$. As $G$ acts transitively on $X$, there exists $g\in G$ such that $y=x.g$. As $\phi$ is $G$-equivariant, $\phi(y)=\phi(x.g)=\phi(x).g$. Thus, $\phi(x)$ determines the map $\phi:X\rightarrow X$. So, any element of $X$ determines the map $\phi$. Fix $x\in X$. We have $\phi(x)\in X$. As $G$ acts freely and transitively, there exists unique $g\in G$ such that $\phi(x)=x.g$.
Sep 15, 2019 at 15:55 comment added Praphulla Koushik @DavidRoberts Is it not necessary for $G$ to be an abelian group? I see that the map $\phi:X\rightarrow X$ given by $\phi(x)=xg$ is not a $G$-equivariant map.. $\phi(x.h)=xgh\neq (xg).h=\phi(x).h$ unless $G$ is abelian.. Am I misunderstanding something here?
Aug 19, 2019 at 3:39 comment added Praphulla Koushik Oh, ok.. I don’t know much about this $B(\Omega(M)=M$.. I can not even convince myself that this is possible.. can you give so:e reference.. Assuming this, I got your point... Holonomy map is a map $\Omega(M,x)\rightarrow G$... See it as $\Omega(M)\rightarrow G$.. Then “take” the classifying space to get the map $M\rightarrow BG$.. then pullback the principal bundle $EG\rightarrow BG$ along this $M\rightarrow BG$ to get a principal bundle $P\rightarrow M$... what you said is mostly clear except that result..can you give some reference...
Aug 18, 2019 at 23:13 comment added Kevin Casto If you're happy with uniqueness up to homotopy: By taking classifying spaces, the map $\Omega M \to G$ gives us a map $B(\Omega M) = M \to BG$, which is just the classifying map of the bundle, and so determines the bundle up to homotopy. Note that $B(\Omega M) = M$ requires $M$ connected.
Aug 18, 2019 at 22:48 answer added Vít Tuček timeline score: 1
Aug 18, 2019 at 9:36 comment added Praphulla Koushik @DavidRoberts That is absolutely correct... I did not realise about the restriction of automorphism group to equivariant automorphism group... So, there was some confusion.. As you said, if a Lie group $G$ acts freely, transitivley on a manifold $M$, the equivariant automorphism group is identified with the Lie group $G$... Here, $G$ acts on $\pi^{-1}(x)$ freely and transitively and the maps $\pi^{-1}(x)\rightarrow \pi^{-1}(x)$ are actually $G$-equivariant.. So, this is clear,,
Aug 18, 2019 at 9:14 comment added David Roberts The group of G-equivariant automorphism of a G-space with a free and transitive action is G itself, because any such automorphism is determined on any given point, and then given the original point and the point it is sent to, there is a unique element of G taking one to the other. Given any other starting point, it gives rise to the same group element. Moreover, composition of these automorphisms corresponds to group multiplication.
Aug 18, 2019 at 7:40 history asked Praphulla Koushik CC BY-SA 4.0