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Aug 18, 2019 at 16:52 comment added Greg Martin RH certainly implies this, since both differences individually are $\ll\sqrt x\log^2x$ under RH. But $\pi(x)-\mathop{\rm Li}(x)$ is going to act like $1/\log x$ times $\theta(x)-x$; so morally speaking, the difference between the two differences will be as big as $\theta(x)-x$ itself, which is definitely not $\ll\sqrt x\log^2x$ if RH is false. So I think it is equivalent to RH. But I know this isn't a proof.
Aug 18, 2019 at 14:12 comment added reuns Partial summation
Aug 18, 2019 at 7:17 history edited Q_p CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 18, 2019 at 7:05 review First posts
Aug 18, 2019 at 10:01
Aug 18, 2019 at 7:04 history asked Q_p CC BY-SA 4.0