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Aug 18, 2019 at 7:08 vote accept M. Winter
Aug 18, 2019 at 2:55 history became hot network question
Aug 17, 2019 at 23:20 answer added Andreas Blass timeline score: 14
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:23 comment added Asaf Karagila Ohhhh, I see. I misread. Well, this is not an equivalence relation, so the term selector is definitely unfit.
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:18 comment added M. Winter @AsafKaragila It is self-explanatory in hindsight :P. But I would say it is something different: if you want so, my sequences are equivalent if they agree exactly on an initial segment of $\Bbb N$. Whether this is a significant difference, I don't know.
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:11 comment added Asaf Karagila Two sequences are equivalent if they are equal except for finitely many points? I hoped the name would be self explanatory... like "selector".
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:10 comment added M. Winter @AsafKaragila Sorry, I do not know "mod-finite relation". But what I do sounds like a selector, so ...
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:09 comment added Asaf Karagila Are you trying to say that this is a selector for "half" of the mod-finite relation?
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:07 comment added M. Winter @Todd Yeah, had the same feeling. Especially, as $\mathcal X$ contains always either $x$ or its complement (the sequence with entries $1-x_i$). Is it easy to make this feeling more concrete?
Aug 17, 2019 at 19:03 comment added Todd Trimble This looks very much like existence of a nonprincipal ultrafilter on $\mathbb{N}$, which cannot be proven in ZF. (But is far weaker than AC of course.)
Aug 17, 2019 at 18:43 history asked M. Winter CC BY-SA 4.0