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I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any absolute $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any absolute $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

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Q_p
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I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

But out of curiosity, why are you interested in this convergence ? Did you receive a certain paper that i also received a few days ago ?

I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

But out of curiosity, why are you interested in this convergence ? Did you receive a certain paper that i also received a few days ago ?

I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

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Q_p
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Claim: NoI claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $\pi(x)-Li(x)\ll x^{\theta}$$|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

But out of curiosity, why are you interested in this convergence ? Did you receive a certain paper that i also received a few days ago ?

Claim: No such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $\pi(x)-Li(x)\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

I claim that no such $s$ is known to exist. Indeed, define $\sigma_c$ to be the abscissa of convergence of $I$. Then

$$\sigma_c = \limsup_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{\log|\pi(x)-Li(x)|}{\log x}.$$ Since we do not know of any $\theta<1$ such that $|\pi(x)-Li(x)|\ll x^{\theta}$, the claim follows.

But out of curiosity, why are you interested in this convergence ? Did you receive a certain paper that i also received a few days ago ?

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Q_p
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