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Aug 8, 2019 at 21:56 comment added user142929 Many thanks to you @JoshuaZ and Stopple for yours contributions, usually in my home I am going to take notes as remarks in a notebook.
Aug 8, 2019 at 15:50 comment added JoshuaZ Note that there's an easy proof for when x=y. If one sets f(x) to be the RHS - LHS in your above proposed inequality, then it is not too hard to see that the limit as x goes to infinity is 0, and to check that f'(x) is negative except for a pole a little smaller than 2. If f(x) was negative for some x in that range, then one would have a contradiction.
Aug 7, 2019 at 19:54 answer added Stopple timeline score: 3
Aug 7, 2019 at 6:37 history edited user64494 CC BY-SA 4.0
A typo.
Aug 7, 2019 at 6:25 comment added user142929 I don't know if the best tag is (analytic-number-theory), or there is a tag more suitable than this, if this question is welcome an interesting, feel free to add/remove those tags more suitable. Feel free to comment if it is possible to improve the mathematical content of my post.
Aug 7, 2019 at 6:25 history asked user142929 CC BY-SA 4.0