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Jul 15, 2019 at 20:11 comment added LSpice Small modifications to a question with an unsatisfactory answer sometimes indicate that there is an unspecified bigger question lurking behind the scenes. Is that true? If so, what is it?
Jul 15, 2019 at 19:00 history edited Jim Humphreys CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 15, 2019 at 17:49 comment added YCor So well, among those Lie algebras with a single so-simple quotient, I'd say that "generically" all Lie algebras satisfy your property. For instance, all solvable 3-dimensional with 1-dim abelianization do, and all 4-dim do, with the exception of the oscillator algebra. For $\mathfrak{s}$ simple and $V$ irreducible $\mathfrak{s}$-module, the semidirect product $\mathfrak{s}\ltimes V$ satisfies your property iff $V$ is not the adjoint representation.
Jul 15, 2019 at 16:43 comment added YCor Maybe you mean to replace "non-degenerate" with "non-zero" (and keep "up to nonzero scalar multiplication"), in which case the question will be less trivial, but the answer will be a bit disappointing. First, say "so-simple" to mean simple or 1-dimensional abelian. Then you get the Lie algebras $\mathfrak{g}$ with a single so-simple quotient $\mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{n}$ (and hence $\mathfrak{g}$ either perfect [solvable-by-simple] or solvable with 1-dim abelianization), with no other quotient having a non-degenerate symmetric bilinear form. This is a huge class.
Jul 15, 2019 at 16:39 comment added YCor Well, it characterizes the Lie algebra $\{0\}$ (assuming you mean "unique up to nonzero scalar multiplication", and also if you mean unique at all).
Jul 15, 2019 at 16:39 history edited Nate Eldredge CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 15, 2019 at 16:36 history asked Thomas Schucker CC BY-SA 4.0