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Jul 15, 2019 at 2:32 answer added Aaron Meyerowitz timeline score: 3
Jul 14, 2019 at 20:15 comment added Matemáticos Chibchas @AsafKaragila Actually I would write $f^{[n]}(k)$.
Jul 14, 2019 at 18:08 history edited YCor
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Jul 14, 2019 at 18:08 comment added YCor (Yet in the wobbling group the sup (of the bonus question) is $1$, by an easy argument.)
Jul 14, 2019 at 16:51 comment added YCor If you restrict to the wobbling group, that is, the group of permutations $f$ of $\mathbb{N}$ such that $\sup_n|f(n)-n|<\infty$, the trivial counterexample fails and there's no $f$ with the given condition, I think.
Jul 14, 2019 at 16:50 comment added Asaf Karagila And with a slight misuse of notation, too. Normally you'd write $f^n(k)$, I've only seen $f^{(n)}$ in the context of the $n$th derivative.
Jul 14, 2019 at 16:48 comment added YCor The beginning is just redefining powers in the monoid of self-maps of $\mathbb{N}$.
Jul 14, 2019 at 16:17 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Jul 14, 2019 at 15:45 answer added Martin Sleziak timeline score: 19
Jul 14, 2019 at 15:25 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0