Probably wrong heuristic and assumingAssuming lots of stuff, just to get the ball rolling:
$$\frac{1}{f(x)}\int_{x}^{\infty}f^{2}(t)dt=\frac{1}{xf(x)}\frac{\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{x}}f^{2}(\frac{1}{t})\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt}{\frac{1}{x}}.$$
So we claim that
$$(xf(x))^{2}\sim \frac{\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{x}}f^{2}(\frac{1}{t})\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt}{\frac{1}{x}}.$$
If $f^{2}(1/t)/t^{2}$ was continuous, then
$$\frac{\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{x}}f^{2}(\frac{1}{t})\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt}{\frac{1}{x}}\sim f^{2}(x)x^{2}\frac{1/x}{1/x}=f^{2}(x)x^{2}.$$
So maybe getting a counterexample by making $f^{2}(1/t)/t^{2}$ not well-behaved eg. blowing up at $t=0$ i.e. $f(x)>\frac{1}{x}$.