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Jul 9, 2019 at 5:15 vote accept John Rached
Jul 9, 2019 at 4:39 answer added Jonny Evans timeline score: 7
Jul 9, 2019 at 4:18 comment added John Rached Ah, thank you very much! That makes perfect sense.
Jul 9, 2019 at 4:12 comment added abx The Arnold-Liouville theorem gives you a canonical isomorphism of the trivial bundle $T_q(Q)\times F_q$ over $F_q$ with the cotangent bundle $T^*(F_q)$. Since $F_q$ is a torus, this cotangent bundle is naturally isomorphic to the trivial bundle $\Omega \times F_q$, where $\Omega $ is the space of invariant differential 1-forms on $F_q$. But the de Rham theorem gives a canonical isomorphism $\Omega \overset{\sim}{\longrightarrow}H^1(F_q,\mathbb{R})$.
Jul 9, 2019 at 2:16 history asked John Rached CC BY-SA 4.0