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Jul 17, 2019 at 8:57 answer added user599553 timeline score: 0
Jul 8, 2019 at 14:36 comment added user599553 If I understand what you're hinting at, I apologize for the last line of my comment being unclear. I meant to say that the result follows from my geometric intuition when $s=2$ and hence all the vectors are in $\mathbb{R}^2$ but I can't prove it for higher dimensions. You're right about dropping the $a_i$, if it is $0$.
Jul 8, 2019 at 14:13 comment added Fedor Petrov I am afraid I do not get your point. If some $a_i$ for $i>1$ is zero, you may simply remove this term.
Jul 8, 2019 at 13:26 comment added user599553 Thanks for thinking about the question @FedorPetrov. Non-vanishing of the binomial determinant reaches the contradiction that (a_1, a_2, .. a_s) be identically equal to 0 which is too strong. Also, to me, it sheds no light on why should the sparsity (the number s) be related to the zeros. Does it to you? I still believe that the geometric intuition I mentioned above could lead somewhere since the set of zeros in question lie in the positive quadrant of R^s and it is very easy to see that a point in R^2 is perpendicular to at most one point in the first quadrant.
Jul 8, 2019 at 8:54 comment added Fedor Petrov This claim is less or more equivalent to the non-vanishing of binomial determinant which is usually derived from Lindstrom-Gessel-Viennot Lemma. I agree that it would be nice to have alternative proof (as is always nice, other proof sheds some light), but not sure that it must exist.
Jul 8, 2019 at 7:44 history edited user599553 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 7, 2019 at 13:07 comment added user599553 Hi, do you have any ideas for the question please?
Jul 7, 2019 at 13:05 comment added Gerry Myerson They are not the same forum.
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:57 history edited YCor
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Jul 7, 2019 at 12:54 history edited user599553 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 7, 2019 at 12:51 comment added user599553 I was unaware that they are the same forum. Deleted the stackexchange entry. Thanks.
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:44 comment added Gerry Myerson Simulposted to math.stackexchange, an abuse of the system. math.stackexchange.com/questions/3285713/…
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:26 comment added user599553 The result is Lemma $1.4$ in the following paper eccc.weizmann.ac.il/report/2018/032 It includes a proof by contradiction using something called the Lindstrom-Gessel-Viennot Lemma. I want a more intuitive proof.
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:11 comment added Fedor Petrov where is this result taken from?
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:09 history edited user599553 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 7, 2019 at 12:00 review First posts
Jul 7, 2019 at 12:36
Jul 7, 2019 at 11:56 history asked user599553 CC BY-SA 4.0