Timeline for Fontaine-Fargues curve and period rings and untilt
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jul 7, 2019 at 13:23 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
Jul 7, 2019 at 6:57 | answer | added | Filippo Alberto Edoardo | timeline score: 2 | |
Jul 7, 2019 at 4:22 | history | edited | user141691 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 197 characters in body
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Jul 6, 2019 at 17:32 | comment | added | Daniel Litt | $C$ is a choice of untilt! | |
Jul 6, 2019 at 15:54 | comment | added | user141691 | @DanielLitt Thanks for your answer. The map $\theta$ is defined the natural extension of $W(R)\rightarrow O_C:(x_0,x_1,...,x_n,...)\rightarrow \sum p^nx_n^{(n)}$ where $x_n=(x_n^{(m)})$ and $x_n^{(m)}\in O_C$. And $A_{cris}^0\subseteq W(R)[\frac{1}{p}]\subseteq B_{dR}^+\subseteq B_{dR}$. The untilt of a perfectoid field $K$ is a pair $(L,r)$, where $L$ is a perfectoid field and $r:L^b\cong K$ is an isomorphism. But I still can't see why $\theta$ determines such a pair $(L,r)$. | |
Jul 6, 2019 at 15:07 | comment | added | Daniel Litt | Doesn't the map $\theta$ (and hence $\xi$) depend on a choice of untilt? Also, I think $A^0_{cris}$ should be a subring of $B_{dR}$, not $W(R)[1/p]$, right? | |
Jul 6, 2019 at 12:54 | history | asked | user141691 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |