Timeline for Is $|\{(j,k):\ 1\le j<k\le\frac{p-1}2:\ \&\ (j^{16}\ \text{mod}\ p)>(k^{16}\ \text{mod}\ p)\}|$ even for each prime $p\equiv1\pmod {16}$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 2, 2019 at 21:48 | comment | added | LSpice | A mathematical situation where $a \mod p$ genuinely means an integer, not just an element of $\mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$, seems very rare. Why is it the right thing to do here? | |
| Jul 7, 2019 at 15:46 | answer | added | Fedor Petrov | timeline score: 7 | |
| Jul 6, 2019 at 9:13 | history | asked | Zhi-Wei Sun | CC BY-SA 4.0 |