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Jan 15, 2022 at 20:11 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 2, 2019 at 19:30 vote accept dohmatob
Jul 2, 2019 at 19:30 comment added dohmatob OK, makes sense. Thanks!
Jul 2, 2019 at 18:20 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 2, 2019 at 12:52 comment added Iosif Pinelis @dohmatob : Concerning your latest comment: That will never be the case if $Var(x^i x^j)\ne0$ for some $i,j$ such that $i\ne j$. Indeed, then $(i,j)\ne(j,i)$, whereas $Cov(x^ix^j,x^jx^i)=Var(x^i x^j)\ne0$, and so, the covariance operator $R$ is not a multiple of the identity operator and hence cannot be the covariance operator of a Gaussian matrix with iid entries.
Jul 2, 2019 at 12:38 comment added dohmatob Any obvious conditions which would imply the convergence is to a Ginibre (i.e matrices with iid Gaussian entries) ?
Jul 2, 2019 at 12:35 comment added dohmatob Oops, that was an oversight on my part. Indeed, the difference is $\sqrt{n}\mu$ which diverges (except when $\mu=0$). Thanks!
Jul 2, 2019 at 12:20 comment added Iosif Pinelis If the $x_i$'s are non-degenerate Gaussian, then $\mu$ is a nonzero (positive-semidefinte) matrix, and so, the convergence of $(s-n\mu)/\sqrt n$ implies that $s/\sqrt n$ does not converge.
Jul 2, 2019 at 12:11 comment added dohmatob Thanks for the response. A (perhaps) naive question though, in case the $x_i$'s are draw from a centered multivariate Gaussian, we know that $s$ has a Wishart distribution. Reasoning along your lines, is it ok that the translate $(s-n\mu)/\sqrt{n}$ converges to a Gaussian, as this would immediately imply $s/\sqrt{n}$ also converges to a Gaussian ? This sounds weird.
Jul 2, 2019 at 12:03 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 2, 2019 at 11:44 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0