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Timeline for Variations on Kaplansky Density

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Jun 25, 2019 at 14:49 comment added Narutaka OZAWA I feel the answer to the second question is NO; probably the solution $x$ to the norm inequality may not extend from $\pi(A)''$ to $A^{**}$ (which is necessarily if there is a solution in $A$).
Jun 25, 2019 at 14:44 history edited Narutaka OZAWA CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 25, 2019 at 13:44 history edited Narutaka OZAWA CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 25, 2019 at 11:51 vote accept Matthew Daws
Jun 25, 2019 at 11:51 history edited Matthew Daws CC BY-SA 4.0
Correct inequality in statements of Lemmas 3 and 4.
Jun 25, 2019 at 11:50 comment added Matthew Daws Great! So the strategy is to use the trick to move to the bidual $A^{**}$, apply Hahn-Banach to get within $\epsilon>0$, and then some functional calculus arguments. BTW I edited to make it $\|a\| \leq 1+k$ in Lemmas 3 and 4.
Jun 25, 2019 at 9:12 history answered Narutaka OZAWA CC BY-SA 4.0