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Timeline for Confusion about model theory notes

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Jul 27, 2010 at 8:32 comment added David Corwin @John Goodrick: Right, but what I mean is, for a given value of $v_1$, we interpret $d_1$ to be $v_1$?
Jul 27, 2010 at 6:06 comment added Sidney Raffer A "justification" of this way of speaking is that we can always regard an element of the domain of a structure as a constant symbol that that denotes itself. Hodges mentions this explicitly in his "Model Theory".
Jul 27, 2010 at 2:42 comment added John Goodrick @Davidac897: Not quite. Remember that an interpretation of a constant in a structure must be an element of that structure, not a variable symbol such as v_1. I see that in the first paragraph of the proof of the CLAIM, Marker is using a standard "abuse of notation" in model theory where the same symbol d_1 is being used both for a new constant symbol added to the language of T, and for the interpretation of this constant in a particular structure. Some other books (e.g. Chang and Keisler) have notation to carefully distinguish these two things, but it looks like Marker's doesn't.
Jul 26, 2010 at 23:30 vote accept David Corwin
Jul 26, 2010 at 23:05 comment added David Corwin So you're saying that for each $\bar{v}$, we can apply the new language (i.e. including the $d_i$'s) to this structure by interpreting $d_1$ as $v_1$, etc? I.e. we make a separate application of the language to our structure for each $\bar{v}$.
Jul 26, 2010 at 23:04 comment added David Corwin So you're saying that for each $\bar{v}$, we can apply the new language (i.e. including the $d_i$'s) to this structure by interpreting $d_1$ as $v_1$, etc? I.e. we make a separate application of the language to our structure for each $\bar{v}$.
Jul 26, 2010 at 22:51 history answered Matti Åstrand CC BY-SA 2.5