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Jul 22, 2019 at 12:07 vote accept David Roberts
Jul 5, 2019 at 19:38 comment added Charles Rezk I'll point to mathoverflow.net/questions/156408/…, which addresses a related question: what criteria imply that $\mathrm{Hom}(G,H)\to \mathrm{Map}_*(BG,BH)$ is a weak homotpy equivalence? The answer there says nothing about your case I think, but perhaps the methods used could be helpful. I don't know.
Jun 21, 2019 at 8:07 comment added David Roberts @Tyler hmm, interesting. It may be my hopes are misplaced, then.
Jun 21, 2019 at 8:00 comment added Tyler Lawson Unfortunately I think that this question is quite sensitive to $A$ and not just to $BA$. For example, $A$ does not have any homomorphisms from $G$ if it does not have any homomorphisms from $S^1$, which requires that it have elements of finite order $(g^n = 1)$; however, any classifying space $BA$ is equivalent to a classifying space $BA'$ where $A'$ has no finite-order elements.
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:49 answer added Mark Grant timeline score: 13
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:16 comment added Praphulla Koushik Oh. Ok ok :) @DavidRoberts
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:14 comment added David Roberts @PraphullaKoushik no, nothing at all. That answer is easy in comparison: they all do.
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:14 comment added David Roberts @Denis ok. And no, $G$ is not abelian.
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:13 comment added Praphulla Koushik Does this have anything to do with similar question "when does a morphism of stacks $BG\rightarrow BH$ is coming from a morphism of Lie groups $G\rightarrow H$"???
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:13 comment added Denis Nardin $E_1$ or $A_∞$ (they are the same thing) control associativity. $E_∞$ is the commutative one. The other $E_n$ interpolate between the two (e.g. $E_2$ gives braided multiplication). $H_∞$ is the "shadow" of $E_∞$ in the homotopy category
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:04 history edited David Roberts CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Jun 21, 2019 at 7:04 comment added David Roberts @MarkGrant yes, sorry, my mistake. Edited the title, too.
Jun 21, 2019 at 6:54 history edited Denis Nardin CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 2 characters in body
Jun 21, 2019 at 6:50 comment added David Roberts @DenisNardin yes, that's another way I was thinking of it.
Jun 21, 2019 at 6:42 comment added Denis Nardin A more usual way of posing the question is: when does an $E_1$-homomorphism come from a map of topological groups? I don't know the answer though, but it is not always
Jun 21, 2019 at 6:37 comment added Mark Grant Should that be "when is $BG\to BA$ the delooping of a homomorphism"?
Jun 21, 2019 at 6:06 history asked David Roberts CC BY-SA 4.0