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Jul 29, 2010 at 14:49 comment added Lasse Rempe 0 and $\infty$ are interchanged. In the restatement, the Jordan domain is supposed to be contained in $\mathbb{C}$ and have 0 on the boundary. If you transform this picture via 1/z, you get a Jordan domain that is contained in $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ and contains $\infty$ on the boundary.
Jul 29, 2010 at 14:08 comment added BS. Then, what takes the role of $0$ in the restatement ?
Jul 29, 2010 at 5:14 answer added fedja timeline score: 3
Jul 28, 2010 at 22:24 comment added Lasse Rempe No, but it doesn't matter as you can apply the transformation $z\mapsto \frac{1}{z}$; hence my restatement.
Jul 27, 2010 at 13:10 comment added BS. In view of your comment, I think that in the main question, you meant $\gamma(t)\to 0$ when $t\to\infty$. Am I right ?
Jul 27, 2010 at 13:00 comment added Lasse Rempe Note that the question can be restated, perhaps more concisely, as follows: Let be a Jordan arc in the complex plane, connecting 0 and 1. Is there a Jordan domain V, containing $\gamma\setminus\{0\}$, such that the convergence of gamma to 0 is horocyclic in V?
Jul 27, 2010 at 12:59 history edited Lasse Rempe CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 26, 2010 at 16:52 history edited Greg Kuperberg
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Jul 26, 2010 at 15:38 history asked Lasse Rempe CC BY-SA 2.5