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Jun 15, 2019 at 13:32 comment added Andrea Marino I mean, the two inverse functions can be explicitly described. One function takes a cylinder and output the cone taking just one vertex of the right base. The other takes a cone and extend it to a cylinder along identities, using the fact that identities are (co)cartesian. We have some equivalences in the middle because extension along (co)cartesian morphism just yield an equivalence. Isn't something like this? I know it is not a precise proof but close..
Jun 14, 2019 at 19:25 comment added Denis Nardin Just to be clear, the comparison of the different models of mapping spaces is not "evident". It requires some proof. It's not excessively hard, but it's not a one-line argument either.
Jun 14, 2019 at 17:49 comment added Tim Campion See this MSE question for some discussion of the result when $D$ is a point.
Jun 14, 2019 at 12:38 answer added Alessandro timeline score: 1
Jun 13, 2019 at 22:49 history edited Andrea Marino CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 13, 2019 at 19:09 history asked Andrea Marino CC BY-SA 4.0