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Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $\mathbb R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.

Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.

Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.

Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $\mathbb R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.

Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of the Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.

Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are two commuting continuous mappings from the closed unit disk (or, if you prefer, the closed unit ball in $R^n$) to itself. Does there always exist a point $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$?

If one of the mappings is invertible, then it is just a restatement of Brouwer's fixed point theorem but I do not know the answer in the general case and would not even dare to guess what it must be. Also, the answer is well-known to be "Yes" in dimension $1$.