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Apr 23 at 16:00 comment added Leo Alonso The scheme $X$ is Gorenstein if and only if $\omega_X$ is invertible and it follows that $\mathrm{Perf}(X)\otimes\omega%^{-1} \cong \mathrm{Perf}(X) $ precisely in this case.
Jun 1, 2019 at 14:34 vote accept Mikhail Bondarko
Jun 1, 2019 at 14:33 comment added Denis Nardin @MikhailBondarko Regarding your last question: not in general, if $D$ is invertible (wrt to the tensor product), then it is dualizable, and so perfect.
Jun 1, 2019 at 14:30 comment added Mikhail Bondarko Dear Denis, no, you shouldn't delete this. I am not sure that I understand these matters well; so you answer is quite helpful for me; thank you! Moreover, I do not understand whether $\hat D$ gives a tensor inverse to $D$ in this more general case as well (cf. Greg Stivenson's answer).
Jun 1, 2019 at 11:16 history edited Denis Nardin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 1, 2019 at 10:33 comment added Denis Nardin I just noticed that this exact argument is present in the answer you linked, so I am now unsure of what kind of answer you were expecting. Should I delete this?
Jun 1, 2019 at 10:32 history answered Denis Nardin CC BY-SA 4.0