Timeline for Is $\operatorname{Hom}(F,G)$ finite if $F$ and $G$ are endofunctors of the category of finite sets?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 15, 2019 at 12:49 | vote | accept | Pierre-Yves Gaillard | ||
| May 14, 2019 at 22:44 | comment | added | Denis T | That assumption was made in the title of question. | |
| May 14, 2019 at 14:12 | comment | added | Pierre-Yves Gaillard | Thanks a lot! +1. In the contravariant case, does it suffice to replace $kX$ with its dual? | |
| May 14, 2019 at 13:49 | history | edited | David E Speyer | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited body
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| May 14, 2019 at 13:30 | comment | added | David E Speyer | You are right, I was trying to simplify too fast. See if this works. | |
| May 14, 2019 at 13:30 | history | undeleted | David E Speyer | ||
| May 14, 2019 at 13:29 | history | edited | David E Speyer | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 298 characters in body
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| May 14, 2019 at 13:23 | history | deleted | David E Speyer | via Vote | |
| May 14, 2019 at 13:22 | comment | added | Achim Krause | Is $\phi_k$ really a natural transformation? Doesn't $\phi_k(f(S)) = f(\phi_k(S))$ fail if $S$ has size bigger than $k$ and $f(S)$ has size smaller than $k$? | |
| May 14, 2019 at 13:16 | history | answered | David E Speyer | CC BY-SA 4.0 |