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May 16, 2019 at 15:40 vote accept Hood
May 15, 2019 at 18:50 answer added Ira Gessel timeline score: 6
May 13, 2019 at 22:35 comment added Hood @IraGessel Thanks, if you post that as an answer I will accept it.
May 13, 2019 at 4:47 comment added Ira Gessel By Lagrange inversion, $$g(t) = \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{1}{p^j(pj+1)}\binom{pj+1}{j} t^{(p-1)j+1}.$$
May 13, 2019 at 3:40 review First posts
May 13, 2019 at 3:53
May 13, 2019 at 3:39 history asked Hood CC BY-SA 4.0