For a representation $V$ of $\mathfrak{g}$, let us say that $\lambda$ is a weight of $V$ is $V_\lambda$ is isomorphic to a subquotient of $V$ as $\mathfrak{g}$-module. This means that for some block-triangulation of the representation, $\lambda$ appears as a diagonal block. Say that $\lambda$ is a strong weight if $V_\lambda$ is isomorphic to a submodule of $V$, i.e., if there exists $y\in V\smallsetminus\{0\}$ such that $x\dot y=\lambda(x)y$ for all $x\in\mathfrak{g}$. For $\mathfrak{g}$ nilpotent and $\dim(V)<\infty$, weight and strong weight are equivalent, but not in general: for instance, for the adjoint representation of the 2-dimensional Lie algebra $\mathfrak{b}$ with basis $u,v$, $[u,v]=v$ and $\lambda(u)=0$ and $\lambda(v)=0$, the weights are $0$ and $\lambda$, but only $\lambda$ is a strong weight.
By definition, we have $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)=\mathrm{Ker}(\lambda)/I_\lambda$, where $I_\lambda\subset\mathfrak{g}$ is the image of $d:\Lambda^2\mathfrak{g}\to\mathfrak{g}$, $x\wedge y\mapsto \lambda(x)y-\lambda(y)x-[x,y]$.
If $\lambda=0$, then $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_0)$ is the abelianization, and hence is zero iff $\mathfrak{g}$ is perfect. (Note that thiswhich is not the same as $0$ being a strong weight of the adjoint actioncoadjoint representation. Note that for $\mathfrak{g}$ finite-dimensional, which in$0$ is a weight of the adjoint/coadjoint representation iff it is not semisimple (for $\mathfrak{g}$ solvable this case means having nontrivial center.) It's the same as being asiff $0$ being$\mathfrak{g}\neq 0$). It is a strong weight of the coadjointadjoint representation iff $\mathfrak{g}$ has nontrivial center.
Next I assume $\lambda\neq 0$. I consider the 2-dimensional Lie algebra $\mathfrak{b}$ with basis $(u,v)$ and $[u,v]=v$.
The non-vanishing of $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)$ means that there exists a linear form $f$ on $\mathfrak{g}$, not proportional to $\lambda$, such that $f([x,y])=\lambda(x)y-\lambda(y)x$ for all $x,y$. The latter condition means that $x\mapsto \lambda(x)u+f(x)v$ is a homomorphism into the 2-dimensional Lie algebra $\mathfrak{b}$, and the non-proportionality means that it is nonzero. In other words, the vanishing of $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)$ means that every lift $\mathfrak{g}\to\mathfrak{b}$ of $\lambda$ has a 1-dimensional image.
For $\mathfrak{g}$ finite-dimensional metabelian and $\lambda\neq 0$, let me check that
$H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)\neq 0$ iff $\lambda$ is a weight of the adjoint representation of, if and only if $\mathfrak{g}$$\lambda$ is a strong weight of the adjoint representation.
If thereProof: the latter equivalence is true for metabelian Lie algebras and $\lambda\neq 0$. Indeed, if $\mathfrak{a}$ is a surjection ontoCartan subalgebra and $\mathfrak{b}$ projecting onto$\mathfrak{n}$ is the derived subalgebra, let $\lambda$ be a nonzero weight of $\mathfrak{g}$. So it is a strong weight of $\mathfrak{n}$ on $\mathfrak{n}$. If $y\neq 0$ and $[x,y]=\lambda(x)y$ for all $\in\mathfrak{a}$, then we write it asthis is also true for $x\mapsto \lambda(x)u+f(x)v$$x\in\mathfrak{n}$ (because $\mathfrak{n}$ is abelian), and hence for all $f$ satisfies$x$ (since $\mathfrak{a}+\mathfrak{n}=\mathfrak{g}$).
If the previous conditions$H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)$ is nonzero, sowe have a surjection $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)\neq 0$$\mathfrak{g}\to\mathfrak{b}$ projecting to $\lambda$ and by pull-back we deduce that $\lambda$ is a weight of $\mathfrak{g}$.
Conversely, $\lambda$ is a weight of the adjoint representation of $\mathfrak{g}$, by the above it is a strong weight. So there exists $y$ such that for all $x\in\mathfrak{g}$ we have $[x,y]=\lambda(x)y$. Since $\lambda\neq 0$, necessarily $y\in\mathfrak{g}^{(1)}$, the derived subalgebra, and this can be viewed as a condition on the adjoint representation of $\mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{g}^{(1)}$ on $\mathfrak{g}^{(1)}$. We can decompose this representation into isotypic components, and kill all other components (for other eigenvalues as $\lambda$), and also kill an invariant hyperplane in the isotypic component of $\lambda$. After doing this, we preserve the property of $\lambda$ being a weight (maybe $y$ is not longer the same), and in addition the derived subalgebra is 1-dimensional. Using a Cartan subalgebra, we see that $\mathfrak{g}$ is then semidirect product of an abelian subalgebra $\mathfrak{a}$ with the 1-dimensional $\mathfrak{g}$, and killing the kernel of $\lambda$ in $\mathfrak{a}$ results in a 2-dimensional algebra. This quotient is precisely a 2-dimensional surjective lift of $\lambda$ onto $\mathfrak{b}$.
Corollary: for $\mathfrak{g}$ finite-dimensional and $\lambda\neq0$
$H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)\neq 0$ iff $\lambda$ is a (strong) weight of the adjoint representation of $\mathfrak{g}$ on the metabelianization $\mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{g}^{(2)}$.
Now here's an example for which $\lambda$ is a weight of the adjoint representation of $\mathfrak{g}$, but not of its metabelianization (so $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)=0$ anyway). Namely, consider a Lie algebra with basis $(s,x,y,z)$ and nonzero brackets $[s,x]=x$, $[s,y]=y$, $[s,z]=2z$, $[x,y]=z$. (This appears a parabolic subalgebra in $\mathfrak{su}(2,1)$ over the reals.) Define $\lambda$ mapping $s$ to 1 and other basis elements to 0. Then $2\lambda$ is a (strong) weight of the adjoint representation (with eigenspace generated by $z$), but not a weight of the 3-dimensional metabelianization (which only has the quasi-weightsweights $0$ and $\lambda$), so $H_1(\mathfrak{g},V_{2\lambda})=0$.
(Here by quasi-weight I mean, weight of quotient of the adjoint representation. It also means weight of the adjoint representation on $\mathfrak{g}$ of some Cartan subalgebra of $\mathfrak{g}$. "Weight" was initially termed "eigenvalue" in the OP's question, and I guess that it was meant as "quasi-weight", because weight is too restrictive assuming it means $\lambda$ such that there exists $y\neq 0$ such that $[x,y]=\lambda(x)y$ for all $x$.)
For $\mathfrak{g}$ finite-dimensional, say of dimension $d$, define $\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}(x)=\mathrm{Trace}(\mathrm{ad}(x))$ (for instance, $\mathfrak{g}$ is unimodular iff $\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}= 0$). Then $H_d(\mathfrak{g},V_\lambda)=0$ if and only if $\lambda=\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}$. However, $\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}$ is often not a quasi-weightweight.
For instance, if $\mathfrak{g}$ is 3-dimensional with 1-dimensional abelianization and quasi-weightsweights of the adjoint representation $0$, $\lambda$ and $t\lambda$ with $t\notin\{0,-1\}$, then $\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}=(1+t)\lambda$ is not a quasi-weightweight of the adjoint representation although $H_*(\mathfrak{g},V_{\tau_{\mathfrak{g}}})\neq 0$.
Second edit: there looking at $H_2$ also provides unimodular counterexamples. Namely, consider an $(n+1)$-dimensional Lie algebra with basis $(s,v_1,\dots,v_n)$ with $[s,v_i]=a_iv_i$. (It is unimodular iff $\sum a_i=0$.) Define $\lambda(s)=1$, $\lambda(v_i)=0$, so the quasi-weightsweights are $0$ and the $a_i\lambda$ (which are strong weights). For $i\neq j$ we have $H_2(\mathfrak{g},V_{(a_i+a_j)\lambda})\neq 0$, although usually $(a_i+a_j)\lambda$ is not a quasi-weight;weight; this gives unimodular counterexamples to the conjecture in dimension $n+1\ge 4$.