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May 4, 2019 at 18:25 vote accept Itai Bar-Natan
May 4, 2019 at 10:51 answer added Andrej Bauer timeline score: 10
May 4, 2019 at 7:37 answer added Peter Gerdes timeline score: 0
Apr 23, 2019 at 8:25 comment added Robert Furber I think you are asking about Type I vs Type II computability. They are equivalent for certain maps between certain spaces but not others (you have to be low enough on the "functions of functions of functions ..." hierarchy). Andrej Bauer posts here and knows about this, so might be able to give you an answer.
Apr 22, 2019 at 19:04 answer added James timeline score: 0
Apr 22, 2019 at 17:17 history asked Itai Bar-Natan CC BY-SA 4.0