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Apr 22, 2019 at 13:04 vote accept Q_p
Apr 22, 2019 at 1:03 comment added LSpice @YemonChoi, is that a new nickname for @‍Gro-Tsen? :-)
Apr 21, 2019 at 4:44 history edited Martin Sleziak
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Apr 21, 2019 at 2:51 history became hot network question
Apr 21, 2019 at 2:48 answer added kodlu timeline score: 20
Apr 20, 2019 at 23:49 history reopened Joseph Van Name
Gro-Tsen
Yemon Choi
Sean Lawton
Gerry Myerson
Apr 20, 2019 at 22:46 review Reopen votes
Apr 20, 2019 at 23:50
Apr 20, 2019 at 22:43 comment added Yemon Choi I agree with Fourton and have voted accordingly
Apr 20, 2019 at 22:41 comment added Gro-Tsen I think this question should be reopened, and the comments made by Peter Humphries and Wojowu posted as an answer. The question might be borderline too elementary for MO but it is natural and I'm sure I'm not the only one to have been confused by this at some (embarrassingly recent) point, it's a bit silly to close when, in effect, the answer is there.
Apr 20, 2019 at 21:53 history closed Peter Humphries
Anthony Quas
Wojowu
Tony Huynh
Felipe Voloch
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Apr 20, 2019 at 21:48 comment added Wojowu In general, limit of sums of series $\neq$ sum of limits of series. In this particular case, the equality does hold, but it requires intricate arguments to prove, which you see in any proof of PNT.
Apr 20, 2019 at 21:48 comment added Peter Humphries It is true that the PNT is equivalent to $\sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\mu(n)}{n} = o(1)$. It is also relatively easy to prove that $\lim_{s \searrow 1} \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{\mu(n)}{n^s} = 0$. The hard part is proving that $\lim_{s \searrow 1} \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{\mu(n)}{n^s} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\mu(n)}{n}$. This is highly nontrivial!
Apr 20, 2019 at 21:45 history asked Q_p CC BY-SA 4.0