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Apr 22, 2019 at 17:51 comment added Dirk And if it is convex, it is automatically locally Lipschitz (given that it is finite everywhere).
Apr 21, 2019 at 6:05 review Close votes
Apr 25, 2019 at 18:55
Apr 20, 2019 at 21:07 comment added Pietro Majer Maybe you should add your definition of Lipschitz (maybe you mean "locally Lipschitz"?) and of supercoercive (is it $\lim_{\|x\|\to\infty}f(x)/\|x\|=+\infty$ what you mean?) because they are incompatible with each other in the common usage
Apr 20, 2019 at 19:12 comment added ABIM Indeed, that's where the question stems from. However, in this setting, it is less clear to me if things are Lipschitz.
Apr 20, 2019 at 15:41 comment added Dirk This reminds me of proximal mappings: there you have $f(x,y) = g(x) +\|x-y\|_2^2$ and the argmin over x is always 1-Lipschitz in y.
S Apr 20, 2019 at 9:12 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 20, 2019 at 7:31 comment added ABIM Hmm..then is there any easy condition on $f$?
Apr 20, 2019 at 6:41 comment added Anthony Quas I have in mind $g(x)=x^{2n}$ for example.
Apr 20, 2019 at 6:19 review Suggested edits
S Apr 20, 2019 at 9:12
Apr 20, 2019 at 5:44 comment added ABIM If the map is strictly convex then this should rule this out no?
Apr 19, 2019 at 21:41 comment added Anthony Quas Consider the case $X=\mathbb R$. If $g(x)$ is a conv x function with a very flat minimum at zero, then $f(x,y)=g(x)+xy$ has the property that the argmin is far from Lipschitz near $y=0$.
Apr 19, 2019 at 19:43 history asked ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0