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Apr 15, 2019 at 2:32 comment added jwyao @NateEldredge Thanks. But I still don't understand why bounded linear operator on Gaussian process is Gaussian. Can you explain more?
Apr 15, 2019 at 2:06 comment added Nate Eldredge mathoverflow.net/questions/256541/….
Apr 15, 2019 at 2:04 comment added Nate Eldredge But if you start with bounded linear functionals, the equivalence is clear. One direction is trivial by taking $d=1$. For the other direction, it's an elementary exercise to show that a finite dimensional random vector is Gaussian iff every linear functional of it is Gaussian (easy with Fourier transforms, for instance); and note that if $f : \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}$ is linear then $f \circ A$ is a bounded linear functional on $\mathcal{H}$.
Apr 15, 2019 at 2:01 comment added jwyao @NateEldredge Any reference on this? And if the operator is bounded and linear, does the equivalence hold?
Apr 15, 2019 at 2:00 comment added Nate Eldredge A discontinuous (unbounded) linear functional of a Gaussian process need not be Gaussian; indeed, typically it won't even be measurable, so saying it's "Gaussian" has no meaning.
Apr 15, 2019 at 1:34 history asked jwyao CC BY-SA 4.0