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Apr 14, 2019 at 11:01 vote accept Riku
Apr 14, 2019 at 10:29 comment added Skeeve @Riku I've added the proof of (1). (2) is by definition ($\operatorname{div} (a \mu) = 0$ in the sense of distributions means $\int a \nabla f d \mu = 0$ for any appropriate test function $f$). Concerning (3) I don't claim uniqueness. But note that in the paper you cited only Claim 1 is stated.
Apr 14, 2019 at 10:16 history edited Skeeve CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 12, 2019 at 9:39 comment added Riku I've also put up a question on a related topic here: mathoverflow.net/questions/327789/…
Apr 11, 2019 at 19:41 comment added Riku Thank you. 1) How do you prove that the family of measures $\{\mu_t\}_{t\in \mathbb{R}}$ satisfies the continuity equation? 2) Why if $\mu$ is the Lebesgue measure then $\mathrm{div}\,a=0$? 3) Are you claiming that $\mathrm{div} \, a = 0$ is sufficient and necessary if (1) has a unique solution? So, for example, if $a \in L^1_tBV_x$?
Apr 11, 2019 at 19:19 history edited Skeeve CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 11, 2019 at 19:06 history answered Skeeve CC BY-SA 4.0