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Apr 10, 2019 at 7:40 vote accept as2457
Apr 7, 2019 at 18:03 history edited Kevin Walker CC BY-SA 4.0
more clarification
Apr 7, 2019 at 17:59 comment added Kevin Walker I'll add some clarification to the answer. I'm using certain canonical elements of the 1-dimensional vector spaces $V_{1a\overline a}$ and $V_{1\overline cc}$.
Apr 7, 2019 at 14:59 comment added as2457 Thanks for the clarification. However, I'm not sure about your second point. I don't think the F-moves relate different vector spaces, they relate the different decompositions of the same vector spaces. That is, they define the associativity of the tensor product of vector spaces. Please correct me if I'm wrong. I also agree that there is a gauge freedom (except for certain gauge invariant F-moves). I guess the more precise question is, can we always fix the gauge to make this element equal to 1?
Apr 7, 2019 at 13:31 comment added Kevin Walker I added some remarks to the answer.
Apr 7, 2019 at 13:30 history edited Kevin Walker CC BY-SA 4.0
answer questions in comments
Apr 7, 2019 at 7:53 comment added as2457 What you're referring to is sometimes called the $\mathbb{Z}_3$ Frobenius Schur indicator, is this correct?
Apr 7, 2019 at 7:37 comment added as2457 Is this the only case that this would be different to the identity?
Apr 7, 2019 at 2:29 history answered Kevin Walker CC BY-SA 4.0