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Timeline for Guessing each other's coins

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Apr 7, 2019 at 1:08 comment added Claude Chaunier Or are the two chosen coins discarded from their respective binary sequences before the next attempt ? Is Alice allowed to remember what her different choices for $a$ have been ?
Apr 7, 2019 at 0:51 comment added Claude Chaunier Am I right in guessing that Alice and Bob lose the game if $A_b\ne B_a$ ? But they play again with the same binary sequences if $A_b=B_a=0$, with only that as added information ? Then a player's strategy is a function $f : \{0,1\}^{\mathbf{N}}\times\mathbf{N} \to \mathbf{N}$ that takes the number of past attempts into account, isn't it ?
Apr 6, 2019 at 19:37 history edited domotorp
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Apr 4, 2019 at 20:50 comment added Michael @usul, I don't understand the "recurse to the next bit" part. Isn't game over on the 1st attempt? Maybe I don't understand the statement of the problem. It sounds to me that $P(A_b)=1/2$ and $P(B_a)=1/2$ and I don't see how they could be correlate, leading to $1/4$ being the win probability regardless of strategy. What am I missing here?
Apr 4, 2019 at 19:41 history edited Guillaume Aubrun CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 4, 2019 at 19:10 comment added Sam Hopkins I think it is worth editing the question to point out, as Édouard Maurel-Segala said, that this problem is explicitly studied in the paper: arxiv.org/abs/1407.4711
Apr 2, 2019 at 12:06 comment added Édouard Maurel-Segala By the way : here is another discussion on some closely related problems (if you accept that a problem on hats that comes in two colors can be translated into a coin problem) : blog.tanyakhovanova.com/2011/04/…
Apr 2, 2019 at 8:17 answer added Édouard Maurel-Segala timeline score: 24
Mar 30, 2019 at 21:47 answer added mihaild timeline score: 16
Mar 30, 2019 at 14:33 comment added Guillaume Aubrun @usul that seems correct and it's a great observation. The reason for that is that, whatever the strategies, $\mathbf{P}(A_b=B_a=0)=\mathbf{P}(A_b=B_a=1)$, since each event $\{A_b=0\}$, $\{A_b=1\}$, $\{B_a=0\}$, $\{B_a=1\}$ has probability $1/2$.
Mar 30, 2019 at 13:48 comment added usul By the way, if we just require the players' bits to match to win (so both finding a zero is also a win), is this the exact same problem with all probabilities doubled? Or is there a difference?
Mar 30, 2019 at 13:40 comment added usul @student nice, here's another way: consider these cases for the first bits $(A_0,B_0)$ of the two sequences: (0,1), (1,0), (1,1). The players win $1/3$ of these equally-likely cases. In the fourth case (0,0), they recurse on the next bit.
Mar 30, 2019 at 4:05 history edited Guillaume Aubrun CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 29, 2019 at 22:13 comment added user114668 I didn't understand $p = 1/3$ at first, so here goes: If $a < b$, then $B_a = 0$. If $a > b$, then $A_b = 0$. So the players win iff $a = b$, with probability $1/3$. The better strategies allow to get $a = b$ slightly wrong and still win.
Mar 29, 2019 at 20:07 comment added Guillaume Aubrun That's because I used the following convention: say for N=3, if a player sees 000, he discards these bits and applies the same strategy recursively to the next 3 bits. If you don't use this trick, the optimal winning probability is indeed increasing with N
Mar 29, 2019 at 20:03 comment added Ryan O'Donnell How can N=4 be worse than N=3? Can't Alice and Bob ignore their 4th inputs if they want?
Mar 29, 2019 at 20:00 comment added Guillaume Aubrun For N=4 I convinced myself (but didn't try to use brute force) that the optimum is $89/255$, achieved using the same strategy as for N=3 (what you do when you see 0000 or 1111 or 0101 or 1010 is irrelevant). This is worse than for N=3 (!)
Mar 29, 2019 at 19:57 comment added Guillaume Aubrun For N=3 one optimal strategy, which gives a probability $22/63$ is: for $f_A$, return the index of the $0$ which is after the block of $1$s, for $f_B$, return the index of the $0$ which is before the block of $1$s (before and after are understood modulo 3, and what you do when you see 000 or 111 is irrelevant)
Mar 29, 2019 at 19:26 comment added Nate Eldredge For N=2,3,4, it should be feasible to brute force to find the optimal strategy. The results might be suggestive.
Mar 29, 2019 at 16:50 comment added Guillaume Aubrun Equivalently (by regularity of measure), you can define $p_{opt}$ as the supremum over strategies which depend only on finitely many variables.
Mar 29, 2019 at 14:48 comment added Guillaume Aubrun I doubt so. I said Borel to make sure that "winning probability" is a well-defined concept. For that at least you want the functions to be measurable.
Mar 29, 2019 at 14:44 comment added Nate Eldredge If you drop the requirement that $f$ should be Borel, do you get bizarre axiom of choice strategies that win more often, as with hat guessing puzzles?
Mar 29, 2019 at 14:25 comment added Guillaume Aubrun I used a "genetic" (?) algorithm, i.e. start from arbitrary functions $\{0,1\}^N \to \{1,\cdots,N\}$ and apply random mutations which you keep when beneficial. The value $358/1023$ corresponds to $N=5$ and the function which maps the elements of $\{0,1\}^5$ listed in lexicographic order to (5,5,1,3,3,3,3,3,1,1,1,1,3,3,3,3,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,1,1,1,1,4,5,4,5).
Mar 29, 2019 at 14:13 history edited Guillaume Aubrun CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 29, 2019 at 14:11 comment added user44191 How did you determine $p_{opt} \geq 358/1023$, and what exactly was the winning strategy?
Mar 29, 2019 at 14:05 history asked Guillaume Aubrun CC BY-SA 4.0