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Mar 28, 2019 at 13:46 history edited Arthur CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 28, 2019 at 13:18 history edited Arthur CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 27, 2019 at 23:30 comment added Arthur The question was badly formulated, I have edited it appropriately.
Mar 27, 2019 at 23:13 history edited Arthur CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 27, 2019 at 22:56 history edited Arthur CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 27, 2019 at 20:53 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 3
Mar 27, 2019 at 20:24 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Explicitly, if $C = \text{Vect}$, consider the presheaf $V \mapsto V^{\ast} \otimes W$ for infinite-dimensional $W$. This corresponds to linear maps $V \to W$ of finite rank, and it is not a direct summand of a representable presheaf, e.g. because it does not send colimits to limits. So semisimplicity does not suffice. It's also easy to construct counterexamples if you don't require your presheaves to be linear, which you don't specify in your question.
Mar 27, 2019 at 19:08 comment added Qiaochu Yuan This should almost never hold, and it certainly does not suffice to assume semisimplicity. Are you sure this is the question you meant to ask?
Mar 27, 2019 at 17:25 review First posts
Mar 27, 2019 at 17:26
Mar 27, 2019 at 17:22 history asked Arthur CC BY-SA 4.0