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Mar 16, 2017 at 0:51 answer added Jeff Strom timeline score: 3
Jan 29, 2016 at 14:07 history edited David Feldman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 20, 2010 at 18:29 vote accept falagar
Jul 20, 2010 at 18:09 comment added José Hdz. Stgo. mathoverflow.net/questions/28160/…
Jul 20, 2010 at 17:40 answer added Robin Chapman timeline score: 9
Jul 20, 2010 at 13:31 answer added Daniel Litt timeline score: 22
Jul 20, 2010 at 13:22 comment added Wadim Zudilin Isn't $2\cdot3=6$ classical analysis? :-) And you use much more complicated products...
Jul 20, 2010 at 13:19 comment added Wadim Zudilin Modulo 6 the argument works, as well as for $1\pmod8$.
Jul 20, 2010 at 13:06 comment added falagar Actually I want proof that is niether of two mentioned in the question. By "a simple non-analytic proof" I mean a proof that doesn't use any of classical analysis.
Jul 20, 2010 at 12:45 comment added Wadim Zudilin Please explain what do you mean by "a simple non-analytic proof". If one of the two mentioned above, then $m$ should involve only 2s and 3s in its prime factorisation.
Jul 20, 2010 at 12:40 comment added Wadim Zudilin I also had a related question mathoverflow.net/questions/25956.
Jul 20, 2010 at 12:19 comment added Nurdin Takenov Here is the similar question - mathoverflow.net/questions/16735/…
Jul 20, 2010 at 12:16 comment added François G. Dorais This question of mine and the answer by Bjorn Poonen deals with many special cases - mathoverflow.net/questions/15220/…
Jul 20, 2010 at 12:14 history asked falagar CC BY-SA 2.5