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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Apr 1, 2019 at 17:22 vote accept Mare
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Mar 31, 2019 at 8:04 answer added Gjergji Zaimi timeline score: 6
Mar 26, 2019 at 21:26 comment added Mare For $n$ odd and $w=(n+1)/2$ one can take $v=(0,0,0....,0,1)$ and for $n$ even and $w=(n+2)/2$ one can take $v$ with exactly two ones in position $n/2$ and $n$.
Mar 26, 2019 at 21:07 comment added Mare @esg Yes, I think that this is easy. In fact the perfect $(w,v)$ for $n$ odd and $w=(n+1)/2$ seem to have a very nice pattern, but for $n$ even I have not figured out what the pattern might be yet. But the pattern is probably also very nice since the sequence oeis.org/A007051 has many nice interpretations.
Mar 26, 2019 at 20:24 comment added esg Concerning conjecture 1: is it obvious or easy that the given maxima can be reached? Or is it part of the problem?
S Mar 24, 2019 at 13:53 history bounty started Mare
S Mar 24, 2019 at 13:53 history notice added Mare Draw attention
Mar 23, 2019 at 21:22 history edited Mare CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 23, 2019 at 20:35 history edited Mare CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2019 at 18:27 comment added MTyson It might be useful to consider $M(t)=1+tZ+\cdots+(tZ)^{w-1}-D$. The determinant of $M(t)(1-tZ)=(1-D)+tDZ-t^wZ^w$ should have few nonzero terms.
Mar 22, 2019 at 17:05 history edited Mare CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2019 at 14:31 history edited Mare CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2019 at 13:47 history edited Mare CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2019 at 13:39 history asked Mare CC BY-SA 4.0