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Mar 17, 2019 at 15:48 comment added James Baxter Ah, you’re right.
Mar 17, 2019 at 15:45 history edited James Baxter CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2019 at 15:08 comment added Dap Unless I've misunderstood, this has easy counterexamples. Take a sequence of smooth functions $f_n$ converging uniformly to a non-smooth function. Set $g(n,\epsilon)=\epsilon^{-n}f_n$ if $\lceil 1/(1-\epsilon)\rceil=n,$ and set $g(n,\epsilon)=0$ otherwise. This gives $\sum_{n=1}^\infty g(n,\epsilon)=f_{\lceil 1/(1-\epsilon)\rceil}.$
Mar 17, 2019 at 14:55 comment added Wojowu In the middle paragraph, shouldn't it be $\lim_{N\to\infty}$? Also, in the last paragraph, shouldn't the sum be up to infinity?
Mar 17, 2019 at 14:20 history edited James Baxter CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2019 at 13:18 history edited James Baxter CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2019 at 13:13 history asked James Baxter CC BY-SA 4.0