Timeline for Why does $p_{n}(i,1)=1$ so often where the polynomials $p_{n}$ are obtained from the classical Laver tables
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 24, 2019 at 13:28 | comment | added | Joseph Van Name | So this phenomenon also holds for various fake Laver tables. | |
| Mar 16, 2019 at 15:07 | comment | added | Joseph Van Name | So this phenomenon also holds in many but not all cases when we choose an even $a$ and select $(a_{1},\dots,a_{s})\in\{1,a\}^{s}$ instead of $(a_{1},\dots,a_{s})\in\{1,2\}^{s}.$ | |
| Mar 13, 2019 at 5:22 | history | asked | Joseph Van Name | CC BY-SA 4.0 |