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Mar 12, 2019 at 10:32 history edited Tomek Steifer CC BY-SA 4.0
< was mistaken for <= in previous presentation
Mar 12, 2019 at 10:31 comment added Tomek Steifer OK, that seems to be right, but I am more interested in going above $1/2$. I will edit the question. Thanks
Mar 11, 2019 at 4:16 comment added Anthony Quas Certainly it would be easy to attain 1/2 by having a sequence of independent but not identically distributed 0–1 valued random variables, with probability of 1 approaching 1/2 from below.
Mar 10, 2019 at 11:01 history edited Tomek Steifer CC BY-SA 4.0
"almost surely" added to make the statement sound
Mar 10, 2019 at 10:35 review First posts
Mar 10, 2019 at 10:52
Mar 10, 2019 at 10:31 history asked Tomek Steifer CC BY-SA 4.0