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Mar 12, 2019 at 11:59 vote accept anuyts
Mar 12, 2019 at 0:08 answer added Mike Shulman timeline score: 1
Mar 11, 2019 at 11:53 history edited anuyts CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 11, 2019 at 11:48 history edited anuyts CC BY-SA 4.0
added 339 characters in body
Mar 11, 2019 at 11:43 comment added anuyts Yes, I've realized the separation of concerns is a bit ill-typed. I'm willing to consider $\xi$ as an $F$-algebra. Anything is better than requiring that $0 \to X$ be epimorphic.
Mar 10, 2019 at 14:13 comment added Mike Shulman By "$Q(\xi)$" do you mean a property of the morphism $\xi$ purely as a morphism in $C$ without any reference to the fact that its domain happens to be of the form $FX$? Or would you include properties of $\xi$ as an $F$-algebra?
Mar 8, 2019 at 23:15 answer added Valery Isaev timeline score: 3
Mar 7, 2019 at 10:48 history asked anuyts CC BY-SA 4.0