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Mar 11, 2019 at 15:26 comment added YCor To complete the answer to the question, it is easy to see that the family $(f_a)_{a>0}$, where $f_a(x)=\frac{2(ac\cos(ax)-\sin(ax)}{\pi x^3}$, spans a vector space of dimension $2^{\aleph_0}$ over $\mathbf{R}$, and hence the dimension of the considered vector space is $2^{\aleph_0}$.
Mar 7, 2019 at 7:32 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 7, 2019 at 4:46 comment added reuns If $f$ is $L^1$ then the necessary and sufficient condition is that $F(k) = 0$ for every $k \ne 0$
Mar 7, 2019 at 1:00 comment added Alexandre Eremenko I wonder why the previous question on the same subject was removed, while this one is accepted so enthusiastically:-)
Mar 6, 2019 at 23:31 comment added T. Amdeberhan @Carlo: Do you need to avoid $a=1$?
Mar 6, 2019 at 21:38 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 6, 2019 at 20:22 vote accept W-t-P
Mar 6, 2019 at 20:17 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 6, 2019 at 20:15 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 6, 2019 at 20:09 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 6, 2019 at 20:08 comment added Loïc Teyssier @ChristianRemling: yes, I realized that ;)
Mar 6, 2019 at 20:05 comment added Christian Remling @LoïcTeyssier: Yes, the original function (Dirichlet kernel) is an example. But the Poisson summation formula comes with assumptions of course, and it would be good to state explicitly what else $f$ needs to satisfy for this to work.
Mar 6, 2019 at 19:56 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0